How is it that gravitational field inside a spherically symmetric body is zero in case of General Relativity where the equations are nonlinear unlike Newtonian gravity where the force is perfectly $1/r^2$.
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1Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/43626/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/219897/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic May 14 '17 at 11:26
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Also in newtonian gravity equations are non linear, so I would not raise that argument. – magma May 15 '17 at 19:10