I'm teaching myself about QM, but there are something really puzzling me about the simple harmonic oscillator: $$H=\frac{p^2}{2m}+\frac{m\omega^2x^2}{2}.$$
I've learned how to use ladder operators to obtain the eigenvalues of this oscillator. Also, I'm able to write out the eigenstates in the form of position space wave functions: $$\langle x'|n\rangle=\left(\frac{1}{\pi^{1/4}\sqrt{2^n n!}}\right)\left(\frac{1}{x^{n+1/2}_0}\right)\left(x'-x^2_0\frac{d}{dx'}\right)^n\exp\left[-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{x'}{x_0}\right)^2\right],$$ where $$x_0\equiv \sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{m\omega}}.$$ So the initial wave function must be a superposition of these eigenfunctions.
However, given an arbitrary normalized wave function $\langle x'|\alpha\rangle$ which is not necessarily a proper superposition, I can use $|\alpha\rangle$ as an initial state and make it evolve according to the Schrödinger equation: $$\langle x'|i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial t}|\alpha;t\rangle = \langle x'|H|\alpha;t\rangle,$$ which seems to make sense.
So my question is:
- Can any normalized wave function be represented as a superposition of the eigenfunctions?
- If not, what would happen if I set the initial state to a wave function that is not a superposition of the eigenfunctions?
Also, there is another question which might be related:
- The numbers of eigenfunctions for $x$ and $p$ are obviously uncountably infinite. But how could it be that this number is countably infinite for $H$?