If I define a point transformation of the form $$ q_i = q_i(s_1,...s_n,t), $$
I can immediately say that $$ \frac{\partial q_i}{\partial \dot{s_j}} = 0 $$
as the transformation defined above does not depend on the velocities $\dot{s_i}$. Well if I inverted this transformation to get
$$ s_i = s_i(q_1,...,q_n,t), $$
I find that
$$ \frac{d s_j}{d t} = \dot{s_j} = \sum_k \frac{ \partial s_j}{\partial q_k} \dot{q_k} + \frac{\partial s_j}{\partial t} $$
and therefore
$$ \frac{\partial \dot{s_j}}{\partial q_i} = \sum_k \frac{ \partial ^2 s_j}{\partial q_i\partial q_k} \dot{q_k} + \frac{\partial^2 s_j}{\partial q_i \partial t} \neq 0. $$
Now am I allowed to say that $$ \frac{\partial \dot{s_j}}{\partial q_i} = \bigg( \frac{\partial q_i}{\partial \dot{s_j}} \bigg)^{-1}$$
because in this case I will have a contradiction. What am I doing wrong?