I have seen this question asked a couple of times (here, for example), but I find the answers very lacking in clarity.
Field operators are defined in terms of creation and annihilation operators as $$\phi_A(x)=\sum_\lambda\int\frac{d^3p}{\sqrt{2E_p}}\bigg(u_A(\mathbf{p},\lambda,s)a(\mathbf{p},\lambda,s)e^{ipx}+v_A(\mathbf{p},\lambda,s)a^\dagger(\mathbf{p},\lambda,s)e^{-ipx}\bigg),$$
where $s$ denotes the spin of the particular state $a^\dagger$ creates, and $\lambda=-s,-s+1,...,s-1,s$ denotes the possible helicities of said state (for a massless particle, we do not include $s$). Up to normalization, $$a^{\dagger}(\mathbf{p},\lambda,s)|0\rangle=|\mathbf{p},\lambda,s\rangle.$$
In the expression for the field, the coefficients $u_A$ and $v_A$ are chosen in such a way that the field obeys the following transformation law $$U(\Lambda)\phi_AU^\dagger(\Lambda)=L_A^{\;\;B}(\Lambda)\phi_B,$$
where $U$ is the unitary representation of the Poincaré group acting on the Hilbert space of the theory, and $L$ is a finite dimensional representation of the Lorentz group acting on the fields.
My question is then, what is the explicit mathematical relationship between the spin $s$ of the created states, and the field representation $L$?
I am aware that, for example, the degrees of freedom match in the case of a scalar, spinor or vector with those of a particle of spin $0, 1/2$ or $1$, respectively. But I am asking for an explicit, mathematical explanation of this fact and not the intuitive reasoning behind it. I believe Weinberg does this in eqs. 5.125 - 5.126 of his first volume, but unfortunately I find his notation unreadable.
Could someone clarify this? Thanks.