My question is probably naive to the experts, but I am curious about the answer. In Weinberg's "Quantum theory of fields", vol. 1, QFT is motivated first by some general principles, such as Lorentz invariance and the cluster decomposition principle.
My question is this. If distant experiments are not (or barely) correlated, why doesn't that contradict the famous thought-experiment of having 2 correlated electrons which are then separated very far from each other, and yet remain correlated (I guess the right technical word is entangled).
So in short, why doesn't entanglement and the cluster decomposition principle contradict each other? I am, most certainly, misunderstanding something, so I hope someone may take the time to clear my confusion.