In general your statement
higher (angular) frequencies have a greater deflection than lower frequencies through a glass prism
is false - materials have a refractive index that trends lower at higher frequencies (for X rays the refractive index is almost 1.0). But it is true for the limited frequencies that correspond to visible light, for a transparent glass prism (no absorption bands, i.e. colorless glass).
Considering a dielectric as made up from different damped harmonic oscillators, as you approach resonance you will initially get an increase in response amplitude and then a decrease, as you pass through resonance. This means that the refractive index as a function of frequency tends to follow a curve like this (after Hecht and Zajak, "Optics" (1973), figure 3.14)

If you have a material that has a positive slope in the range of frequencies of interest, your relationship holds - this is the "normal dispersion" range. But in general it doesn't (because of the "anomalous dispersion" that occurs around regions of resonance).
In general, the refractive index follows an equation of the form
$$\frac{n^2(\omega)-1}{n^2(\omega)+2} = \frac{Nq_e^2}{3\epsilon_0 m_e} \sum_j \frac{F_j}{\omega_{0j}^2 - \omega^2+i\gamma_j \omega}$$
(equation 3.38 from Hecht and Zajac (1973) "Optics"). You can see there are terms related to the individual resonances, $\omega_{0j}$, that correspond to absorption modes of the molecules that make up your medium. As the frequency increases, fewer and fewer of these modes will be excited, which is why the large scale trend is for the refractive index to decrease; but on a smaller scale, between characteristic frequencies, the trend is reversed. And it so happens that for a clear material like glass, the fact it is colorless implies that there can be no absorption in the visible range, and that therefore the entire visible range must have "normal" dispersion.
UPDATE
I was too hasty in my reply; from the comments, I realize there are specific parts of the derivation you are struggling with. Let's take these two in turn.
$v_{phase}$ decreases with $\omega$
This seems to be contradicted by the equation $v_{phase}=\frac{\omega}{k}$ which suggests that $v_{phase}$ should increase with frequency. But that ignores the fact that the wave number $k$ is also changing with frequency. That is why the more sensible expression is $v_{phase}=\frac{c}{n}$ - we know that $c$ is constant so we only have to worry about the effect of frequency on $n$. And we know that, over the range of visible light frequencies, the refractive index increases with frequency (decreases with wavelength, which is how it's shown in the image I reproduced from the answer to the duplicate question I marked).
The second statement,
$n_{glass}$ increases with $\omega$
is again not contradicted by your expression (2), because once again it contains $k(\omega)$ so you can't just state it will be proportional to $\frac{1}{\omega}$.