Inertia forms the basis of Newtonian physics,but nothing really explains it.I know that it is generally accepted in classical physics,but can it's origin be explained?Maybe be relativity or quantum mechanics?
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3Possible duplicate of: Why does inertia happen? – John Rennie Sep 25 '17 at 16:43
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2Possible duplicate of Why does inertia happen? – stafusa Sep 25 '17 at 23:50
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I am not sure about explanation but It can be understood via GR. "Mass curves space".
When the mass curves space, it creates a dip in space around it. And that dip makes a force necessary to move the body.
Changing speed, or direction works the same way, you need a force to act against that state of the dip to change it.
There does not have to be any other mass around. Mass of any body, itself creates that dip of inertia and that is why more the mass, bigger the dip, harder to change the state of the dip, whether moving, or at rest.
kpv
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@m.r.: Obviously, it changes. At relativistic speeds the dip would become deeper and deeper requiring more and more energy for change in state. Note that this answer is an attempt to understand inertia, and likely is not a mainstream answer. – kpv Nov 29 '17 at 01:20
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@m.r.: The part "requiring more and more energy for change in state at relativistic speeds" is experimentally proven in particle accelerators all the time. However, no one is able to see the dip itself, same way as no one has been able to see the curving of space. – kpv Nov 29 '17 at 07:06
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isn't the part "requiring more and more energy for change in state.." just the definition of inertia? thnx – michael Nov 29 '17 at 11:23
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@m.r.: You may google the definition of inertia. By more and more, I mean if it requires x amount of energy to increase speed by 5 miles, say from 0 to 5 miles an hour, then it will take much more than x energy to increase speed by 5 miles, say from (c-10) to c-5) miles an hour. This is relativistic effect. Higher the speed, harder it is to change the state. – kpv Nov 29 '17 at 21:54
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@m.r.: Yes, it is due to inertia, but inertia deepens with increasing speed per general relativity. – kpv Nov 30 '17 at 10:47
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@m.r.: Yes, but as I said earlier, to get a mainstream answer, please post it as a question and more qualified users would answer appropriately. They say that the momentum and kinetic energy approached infinite, rather than saying inertia approaches infinity. But I do not see a difference. – kpv Nov 30 '17 at 18:03
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perhaps the effect you mention is only relativistic in nature. but when an object is at rest, the v/c component goes to zero. so what determines the initial "rest inertia". perhaps this is determined by something unrelated to c – michael Dec 02 '17 at 19:11
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@m.r.: You are right, that is determined by the rest mass. But, again, rest also is a relative term. – kpv Dec 03 '17 at 00:18