I know that there are some other discussions on this on physics stack exchange, but the other day I was playing with the expression for the Lagrangian and thinking about it's connection with relativity and I thought I may have come up with something.
The principle of stationary action states that the functional $$S(f) = \int_{t_0}^{t_1} L(q(t), q'(t), t) = \int_{t_0}^{t_1} \frac{1}{2}mq'(t)^2 - P(q(t), q'(t), t)$$ should be stationary. (where $q(t) = (q_x(t), q_y(t), q_z(t))$ is the path traveled in space parametrized by time $t$, and $P(\cdot, \cdot, \cdot)$ is the potential energy of the system)
and if we assume that we have a conservative field, then the potential is only dependent on position and time. So then we can simplify it to -
$$S(q) = \int_{t_0}^{t_1} \frac{1}{2}mq'(t)^2 - P(q(t), t)$$
Here is what I think I discovered - If we define $w(t) = (t, q(t))$, then - $$S(q) = \int_{t_0}^{t_1} \frac{1}{2}w'(t)\begin{bmatrix}-2P(w)&0&0&0\\0&m&0&0\\0&0&m&0\\0&0&0&m\end{bmatrix}w'(t)$$ But now this looks like the equation for the length of a worldline passing through spacetime!
Is this somehow wrong, or can we actually look at classical mechanics as geodesics moving through spacetime with the metric shown above?