I'd like to help use the following exercise to reinforce my understanding of some basic concepts of quantum states. Here's a picture of the setup:
Now, I'll try and make my series of questions about the insights taken from this exercise as clear as possible.
First question - why is the intensity after going through the first slit $1/2 \ I_0$ regardless of slit orientation?
Firstly, I attempted the following, which was flat out wrong (also I don't know how to use Bra-ket notation here, I'm going to use unit vectors instead.. hopefully that's okay? Please excuse this hideous 'notation', just trying to illustrate my confusions):
$$V' = \cos{(7\pi/12)} \hat V + \sin{(7\pi/12)}\hat H$$
Where $V'$ is the new vertical polarization state, and $\hat V$ and $\hat H$ are the vertical and horizontal states respectively.
I posited this because $\hat V$ and $\hat H$ represent the basis vectors $(0,1)$, $(1,0)$ that represent the vertical and horizontal aperture arrangements of the filters. We are instructed, as far as I could understand, to construct a new basis vector when there is an arbitrary aperture angle as a linear combination of the typical horizontal and vertical arrangements.. which led to something like this. This led me to state that the probability for absorption of the vertical filter to be..
$$cos^2(7\pi/12) \approx 0.06$$
It's clear that this stuff is fuzzy to me, but hopefully my confusion is laid relatively bare enough. $7\pi/12$ is merely the angle I took from $\theta_0 = 0$, so $\alpha = \pi/12 + \pi/2$.
This was an attempt to answer the first part of the question, which I'm aware was an answer of probability and not intensity, but I wasn't sure how to do this any other way. Anyway, that garbage attempt for physics aside, I'm told that the answer to this is that the intensity is halved from the first aperture, regardless of orientation of the slit. I don't really know why - my only guess is that it has something to do with the light being unpolarized. But, I mean, thinking off the cuff, if the light is a beam with a diameter roughly equal to the filter, then the filter would have to be a gap half the size of the circle in order for only half the light to make it through! I don't have any good justification as to why this doesn't make sense.
Second question - what is the sense behind the approach to find the probability for a photon to be detected by a PMT placed after the final filter?
My lecturer's answer states that after the light goes through the first slit, it is polarized along the $\alpha$ axis, which I think means it basically forms a line parallel and on top of the slightly diagonal, dotted line in the first filter. He contends that, since it makes an angle $\alpha + \beta$ with the transmission axis of the second filter (which is not apparent to me visually), the beam is reduced by a factor
$$cos^2(\alpha + \beta)$$
and by a similar argument for the third filter:
$$cos^2(\beta + \gamma)=cos^2(55^0) \approx 0.33$$
Which leads to a final intensity of $I \approx 0.068 I_0$.
So my specific confusions I need addressed are:
Why the intensity after going through the first slit is $1/2 \ I_0$ regardless of slit orientation?
Why we use a cosine squared term. I thought I knew why in my screw up above but I don't think I do anymore.
Why, in order to find the proper new orientation of polarization, we add the previous angle with the new one as our cosine argument