I'm working with the standard Boson Hubbard model. It's Hamiltonian is defined in Fock space and commutes with total particle number N. $$[{{\hat H}_{BH}},\hat N] = 0$$
So I can simultaneously diagnonalize ${{\hat H}_{BH}}$ and ${\hat N}$. And in this process the ground state of ${{\hat H}_{BH}}$ I get will have definite total particle number.
Then for my ground state $$\left\langle {{\psi _g}} \, \middle| \,\hat b \,\middle| \, {{\psi _g}} \right\rangle = 0$$ will always holds because $$\hat b\left| {{\psi _g}} \right\rangle $$ has different total particle number thus is orthogonal to $\left| {{\psi _g}} \right\rangle $. But $\left\langle {\hat b} \right\rangle $ is the order parameter for superfluid phase. I deduce that Boson Hubbard model never has a superfluid phase, which is certainly wrong. But I don't understand what's wrong with my arguments. I'm confusing these days. Help please.