This is a question from Jeevanjee's Introduction to Tensors and Group Theory for Physicists:
Show that for a metric $g$ on $V$,
$$g_i^{~~j} = \delta_i^{~~j}$$
so the $(1,1)$ tensor associated with $g$ (via $g$!) is just the identity operator.
The only way I can think of associating $g$ with a $(1,1)$ tensor is to define $\tilde{g}(v,f)=g(v,L^{-1}(f))$, where $L:V\to V^*$ such that given $v \in V$,
$$(L(v))(w) = g(v,w)~~\forall w \in V.$$
The components of the $(1,1)$ tensor can be expressed as
$$\tilde{g}_i^{~~j} = \tilde{g}(e_i, e^j) = g(e_i, L^{-1}(e^j))$$
Now $L^{-1}(e^j) = \sum_k g^{jk}e_k$, where $[g^{ij}]$ is the inverse matrix of $[g_{ij}]$.
$$\tilde{g}_i^{~~j} = g(e_i, \sum_k g^{jk}e_k) = \sum_k g^{jk}g(e_i,e_k) = \sum_k g^{jk} g_{ik}$$
There's a discrepancy with the order of the indices: it should either be $\sum_k g^{jk} g_{ki}$ or $\sum_kg^{kj}g_{ik} = \sum_kg_{ik}g^{kj}$. How to resolve this? I guess I'm missing some fact about the notation.
Edit: As pointed out in an answer, this is fine as long as $g$ is symmetric. What if it's not?