In most cases, people discuss the effective action or the effective potential in the convention $\hbar=1$. Occasionally, we see the expression at the 1-loop order as $$\Gamma[\phi]=S[\phi]+\frac{i\hbar}{2}\text{Tr}\log[\partial^2+V''[\phi]]+{\cal O}(\hbar^2)\;,\tag{12}$$ see, e.g., eq. (12) in A. Zee's QFT textbook on pp. 239.
I wonder, does the $\hbar$ really play a role in the effective potential? In this case, it seems that any quantum corrections to the classical potential is very small, suppressed by $\hbar$. But in many discussions, the effective potential can differ the classical potential dramatically.
I currently have a discrepancy with my colleague about the physical role of the $\hbar$ appearing in the above formula. My colleague thinks that, the $\hbar$ appearing in the second term is only for a bookkeeping purpose and is not physical and argues that it can be cancelled somehow while I disagree. To me, perhaps the intuitive way to understand my colleague's opinion is that the $\hbar$ appears like a total factor in front of the action and any rescaling the units could change the magnitude of the $\hbar$ but the physics shall not be affected. Any opinions?