This might be a stupid question.
In Bailin and Love's "Cosmology in gauge field theory and string theory", the authors are describing how to calculate the effective potential at a finite temperature $T$ (Section 2.3, Pg. 42). Initially, they start with the treatment in zero-temperature.
They start by saying:
In quantum field theory at zero temperature, the expectation value $\phi_c$ of a scalar field $\phi$ (also referred to as the classical field) is determined by minimizing the effective potential $V(\phi_c)$. The effective potential contains a tree-level potential term, which can be read off from the Hamiltonian density, and quantum corrections from various loop orders.
I can understand this. However, they go on to claim (with $\phi(x)=\phi_c+\tilde{\phi}(x)$),
The one-loop quantum correction is calculated by shifting the fields $\phi$ by their expectation values $\phi_c$ and isolating the terms $\mathcal{L}_\mathrm{quad}(\phi_c,\tilde{\phi})$ in the Lagrangian density which are quadratic in the shifted fields $\tilde{\phi}$.
This is the statement I am a bit confused about. Why do we only isolate terms that are quadratic in the $\tilde{\phi}$, but not higher powers? There may be self-interaction terms; do these not contribute to the one-loop correction?