Working my way through Feynman V.III. Sec. 12-6 derives Eqn 12-47. I follow all the steps until the equation, but cannot see how he gets 12-47 from 12-46. Appears that he's using the rule: If $\langle+T|+S\rangle = a^2$ then $|+S\rangle = a^2|T\rangle$. Am I correct? If so, where does that rule come from?

- 201,751

- 21
-
1May be some details there : Total spin of two spin-1/2 particles would be useful. – Frobenius Jul 22 '18 at 05:16
1 Answers
Think of evaluating a bra-ket as doing a dot product and |+S> and |+T> as vectors. Since |+S> is normalized (making it a "unit vector"), it follows <+T|+S> is akin to projecting |+T> along the |+S> direction. Since $\vec{a}\cdot \vec{b}=q$ does not imply $\vec{a}= q*\vec{b}$ unless they lie in the same direction you're statement also isn't always true.
What is happening here is that we are looking to represent a quantum state, $\rvert ++\rangle$, in some other inertial frame. Feynman defines the new basis vectors for our two spin states as $\rvert +'+'\rangle$, $\rvert +'-'\rangle$, $\rvert-'+'\rangle$, $\rvert -'-'\rangle$. Now one just proceeds as in normal linear algebra when changing a basis by projecting onto each. \begin{equation} \lvert ++\rangle=\langle ++ | +'+'\rangle| +'+'\rangle+\langle ++ | +'-'\rangle| +'-'\rangle + \langle ++ |-'+'\rangle|-'+'\rangle+\langle ++ | -'-'\rangle| -'-'\rangle \end{equation}
Now just plug in the values for all inner products above as found in the feynman lectures 12-46.

- 130
-
Thanks - didn't think my conjecture was right :-) Your equation is clearly in the right direction, but I'm still stuck. The amplitudes in 12-46 are <+'+'|++>, <+'-'|++>, etc., i.e., the reverse of the ones needed to plug into the equation (<++|+'+'>, etc.). Since a^2 != (a*)^2, can't see how to get <++|+'+'>, <++|+'-'>, and so forth. [Thanks for your help. Apologies for being so slow.] – JoeJeffrey Jul 22 '18 at 16:35
-
Ignore above comment about the problem with the conjugates - I finally figured it out! Thanks! – JoeJeffrey Jul 22 '18 at 22:45