Let us suppose we have a particle with energy $E$ and $E<U$ and the potential defined as
$U(x)=0$ for $x<0$ (I)
$U(x)=U_0$ for $x>L$ (III) and
$U(x)=U$ for $0<x<L$ (II)
I find the wavefunction for
region (II)
$$\psi(x)=Ae^{\beta x}+Be^{-\beta x}$$ for $\beta=\frac {\sqrt{2m(U-E)}}{\hbar}$
Is this true ? Because in the site of the hyperphysics it says it should be,
$$\psi(x)=Be^{-\beta x}$$ for $\beta=\frac {\sqrt{2m(U-E)}}{\hbar}$
I am not sure how we can derive this mathematically ? Why the
$Ae^{\beta x}$ term vanishes ?