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If I have a theory defined on some manifold, my understanding is that the dynamical objects in the theory should carry a representation of the isometry group of that manifold. Moreover, the action $S$ of my theory should be constructed out of combinations of these dynamical objects so that it is invariant under the isometry group.

For example, in a flat-space field theory for a free field transforming as a scalar under the Poincare group, the action is

$$S[\phi, \partial_{\mu}\phi] = \int d^4x \, \frac{1}{2} (\partial_{\mu}\phi)^2 - \frac{m}{2}\phi^2.$$

Now when I act by say, the translation part the isometry group, my understanding is that the field transforms like

$$\phi(x) \rightarrow \phi(x + \epsilon) \approx \phi(x) + \epsilon^{\mu}\partial_{\mu}\phi(x), \\ \partial_{\mu}\phi(x) \rightarrow \partial_{\mu}\phi(x + \epsilon) = \partial_{\mu}\phi(x) + \epsilon^{\nu}\partial_{\nu}\partial_{\mu}\phi(x)$$

but that the bounds of the integral and the measure do not change. This is because if they did, I would just be carrying out a coordinate transformation, under which any integral over a manifold is invariant by definition.

Carrying out the above transformation, the change in the action is

$$\delta S = \int d^4x \,\frac{1}{2} \epsilon^{\nu}\partial_{\nu}\left[(\partial_{\mu}\phi^2) - m\phi^2\right],$$

which is just zero if I assume that fields vanish at infinity.

However, if I try and apply the same reasoning to a classical particle, something goes wrong. If I take the position of a particle $x(t)$ to be my dynamical object, then the action is

$$S[x] = \int_{t_1}^{t_2}dt \, \frac{1}{2} x'^2,$$

and the manifold that I'm integrating over, namely a line segment, doesn't even have an isometry group. Moreover, it is unclear to me how one should even apply a time translation. My guess would be to make the transformation

$$x(t) \rightarrow x(t + \epsilon) \approx x(t) + \epsilon x'(t),$$

while again leaving the measure and bounds untouched. However, then the action changes by

$$\delta S = \int_{t_1}^{t_2} dt\, \frac{\epsilon}{2}\frac{d}{dt}(x')^2,$$

which is not zero.

My questions are as follows:

  1. Am I correct in saying that dynamical objects in a theory should carry a representation of the isometry group of the manifold they are defined on, and that the action should be invariant under the isometry group?

  2. Am I applying isometry transformations correctly? Namely, should I only be transforming the dynamical objects, but not the measure or the bounds on the integral?

  3. If the dynamical objects should carry a representation of the isometry group, how does the classical particle fit into this picture, since a line segment does not have an isometry group?

Qmechanic
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    Related question here. There's also no problem with the particle case -- the action can pick up a total derivative/boundary term, you still get a conserved quantity. – knzhou Dec 27 '18 at 21:43
  • Thanks! My understanding was that only the Lagrangian could pick up a total derivative, because then if the dynamic variables vanished on the boundary, the action itself would remain invariant. In the point particle case, the boundary conditions are such that this doesn't happen. Is this still allowed? – anon123456789 Dec 27 '18 at 21:46
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    It's fine. We use the 'vanishing at the boundary' thing to perform integration by parts, e.g. when deriving the Euler-Lagrange equation. Noether's theorem does not require this. – knzhou Dec 27 '18 at 21:51
  • What do you mean by 'but that the bounds of the integral and the measure do not change. This is because if they did, I would just be carrying out a coordinate transformation, under which any integral over a manifold is invariant by definition.'? – Mozibur Ullah Dec 27 '18 at 21:56
  • I mean that if I define $x' = x + \epsilon$ and rewrite the action as $S = \int d^4 x' \frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\mu}\phi(x'))^2 - \frac{m}{2}\phi(x')^2$, this would be exactly the same as the first expression I wrote down, since all I did was carry out a coordinate transformation. – anon123456789 Dec 27 '18 at 22:04

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