I am studying the path integral quantization of relativistic particles, using the BRST quantization method. I have to compute the integral \begin{equation} Z\sim \int Dx \det(\partial_\tau)e^{-\int_0^1d\tau(\frac{1}{4T}\dot{x}^2+m^2T)} \end{equation} where $\det(\partial_\tau)$ is the result of a path integration over the ghost and antighost $b$ and $c$, namely \begin{equation} \det(\partial_\tau)=\int Dc Dbe^{-\int_0^1d\tau b\dot{c}} \end{equation} At this point the professor claims that we need to compute the determinant to resolve the path integral, and that "for the wordline topology of the interval $I$ one obtains the QFT propagator of the scalar particle. The FP determinant is just a constant and it can be absorbed in the normalization and the path integral becomes: \begin{equation} Z_I= \int_0^\infty dTe^{-m^2T}\int_I Dx e^{-\int_0^1d\tau\frac{1}{4T}\dot{x}^2} \end{equation} while for the topology of the circle $S^1$ one obtains the QFT one-loop effective action \begin{equation} Z_{S^1}= -\int_0^\infty \frac{dT}{T}e^{-m^2T}\int_I Dx e^{-\int_0^1d\tau\frac{1}{4T}\dot{x}^2} \end{equation} which contains the extra factor $T^{-1}$ due to the fact that there is a zero-mode in the ghost determinant that signals a traslational symmetry of the circle."
My question: I don't understand the connection with the FD and the topology of the wordline. Why should the determinant be constant, what is the starting point of the reasoning behind this? I can't find suitable references on this particular issue.