In position basis, we have,
$$\langle x \mid \hat p \mid \Psi(t) \rangle = -\imath \hbar \frac{\partial{\langle x \mid \Psi(t) \rangle}}{\partial{x}} $$
Now I know $\hat{p}$ is a Hermitian operator which should be self adjoint.
The self adjoint operators are said to satisfy :
$$\langle A \psi \mid \phi \rangle = \langle \psi \mid A \phi \rangle$$
But I failed to workout the following :
$$ \langle x \mid \hat{p}^\dagger \mid \Psi(t) \rangle$$
For ladder operator $\hat{a}$ I found $\hat{a}^\dagger$ by conjugating in position basis. And clearly $\hat{a}$ is not Hermitian because $$ \hat{a}^\dagger \neq \hat{a}$$ in position basis. And thus $\hat{a}$ does not correspond to any observable.
But $\hat{p}$ is Hermitian. But it seems, at position basis, complex conjugating $\hat{p}$ gives a different object.
Where am I making a mistake here?
EDIT:
After posting the question I found some inconsistencies in my argument.
$$\hat a = \frac {\hat x}{\sqrt {\frac {2 \hbar}{m \omega}}} + \frac {i \hat p}{\sqrt {2 \hbar m \omega}}$$
is not a representation in any basis. It's just an operator relation with some scaling factor.
whereas $$-i \hbar \frac {\partial}{\partial x} $$ is a representation of $\hat p$ in position $x$ basis.
So they should not be comparable.
But i still want to know what $\hat{p}^\dagger$ is in position $x$ basis.
I just falsely took a wrong example.