My question is pretty much in the title. According to this paper, this is not exactly proven rigorously yet. What I dont understand is what exactly is not proven. If I'm not too wrong, a test particle is just a particle, which does not affect the ambient gravitational field.
According to this Paper, it can be easily shown that the eqn. Of motion for a point particle in a curved space (having metric $g_{\mu \nu}$), can be found by considering the action to be just, $$S = -mc \int ds \, ,$$ where $$ds^2 = -g_{\mu \nu}dx^{\mu}dx^{\nu}$$ This would give the geodesic eq. As the eq. Of motion.
Now, if we assume that the particle is somewhat massive, couldn't we just modify the metric linearly, by superposing a mass coupled metric as, $$g'_{\mu \nu} = g_{\mu \nu} + m h_{\mu \nu}$$
Considering the same form of the action above, we should get the same geodesic eq. Along with a subsidiary eq.(which has a mass coupling). In the limit $m \rightarrow 0$, the subsidiary term should vanish, leaving the original geodesic eq.
So what I want to know, is what exactly is the unsolved part of this problem ? I failed to understand it from the text itself. It would be great if someone can point that out.