Going by the explanation given by Stephen Hawking (as given in Brief History of Time) , the spin of a particle is no. of rotation you give to that particle so that it looks the same. Like you give half rotation to particle of spin 2 (just like a double headed arrow) and 1 complete rotation of particle of spin 1. But why does an electron with spin 1/2 Have two spins +1/2 and -1/2. If +1/2 spin means you need to give two complete rotation to the particle then what does -1/2 mean? I don't know if I am following the right approach. Can someone explain?
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Don't take too seriously what people, even very bright people, write in popularization books. In order to try to provide an understandable explanation for Hawkings statement it would be necessary to know what is your physics background. – GiorgioP-DoomsdayClockIsAt-90 Jun 07 '19 at 09:17
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Hawking* I've seen his name spelled incorrectly so often. – Avantgarde Jun 07 '19 at 18:52
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Yeah I just didn't notice the mistake thanks. – Devjyoti Jun 08 '19 at 00:24
1 Answers
In the representation theory of angular momentum ($su(2)$ for spin and $so(3)$ for rotations: the algebras are equivalent) one labels states by their eigenvalue of the operator of the z-component, say, of angular momentum and their eigenvalue of the "square" of the angular momentum (would be the length of the angular momentum vector in classical mechanics). The latter operator, S^2, is the casimir of the group and commutes with the other operators.
So states are written $| s, m\rangle$ where the labels are the total spin, s, and its projection in the z direction. In particular, the electron is spin s= 1/2 and as such its projection in the z direction is m=+1/2 or m=-1/2. So two states, of spin 1/2, that differ only in the orientation of their spin with respect to the z axis.

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