Why can't the wave function and it's derivative be zero at the same point?

Question

This was discussed before proving the node theorem.

This was discussed before where? – Qmechanic Aug 18 '19 at 15:44 — Qmechanic, Aug 18 '19 at 15:44

score 1 · Answer 1 · answered Aug 18 '19 at 16:05

1

The 1D TISE is a second-order homogeneous ODE. The complete solution span a 2-dimensional vector space parametrized by 2 constants. It is not hard to see that if a solution and its derivative vanish in the same point, it must be the zero-solution. The zero-solution is unacceptable as a wave-function.

answered Aug 18 '19 at 16:05

Qmechanic

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I could not imagine a counterexample so I buy it. – my2cts Aug 18 '19 at 18:02

Why can't the wave function and it's derivative be zero at the same point?

1 Answers1