Given that the Laplacian operator $\Delta$ acts on the space of functions(at least $C^2$), does the equation $\Delta\phi=0$, define a base of that space such that solutions of $\Delta\psi=f$ can be decomposed in that base.
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1Might [math.se] be better suited for this math question? – Kyle Kanos Aug 26 '19 at 23:31
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The linear combination will only solve Laplace's equation. So no.
If each $\phi_i$ solves Laplace's equation, then $\Delta\phi_i=0$, and $$\Delta\left(\sum_ia_i\phi_i\right)=\sum_ia_i\Delta\phi_i=0$$

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