I know there are many related questions already posted on this topic. And there are several answers too. But I am still confused with obtaining Newton's second law from Lagrange's equation. (I don't have enough reputations to add comments on previously posted questions. That is why I am posting this question)
Let me try to tell what I know Lagrange's equation \begin{equation}\frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}}-\frac{\partial L}{\partial x}=0\end{equation}
Where Cartesian coordinates are itself generalized coordinates. Let $L=T-V$ and, $T=\frac{1}{2}m \dot{x^2}$
Consider $T$ only, because it is what upset me.
According to my text book \begin{equation} \frac{\partial T}{\partial x}=0 \end{equation}
But according to me,
\begin{equation}\frac{\partial T}{\partial x}=\frac{1}{2}m \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\dot{x}\end{equation} Since \begin{equation} \frac{\partial}{\partial x}\dot{x}= \frac{\partial \dot{x}}{\partial t} \frac{\partial t}{\partial x}=\frac {\ddot{x}}{\dot{x}}\end{equation}
On substitution I get \begin{equation} \frac{\partial T}{\partial x}=m \ddot{x} \end{equation}
That is all...
I know I got mistake somewhere. I spend hours. Still couldn't resolve it. Help me..