I am struggling to understand part of the derivation for the Rayleigh criterion, which states that
"Two images are just resolvable when the center of the diffraction pattern of one is directly over the first minimum of the diffraction pattern of the other."
Starting from the condition for constructive interference
$$d\sin\theta = m\lambda\quad \text{where} \,\,\,\,m\in \mathbb{Z}\tag{1}$$ and multiplying by $N$, the number of slits in the grating, $$Nd\sin\theta=mN\lambda\tag{2}$$
$(2)$ is the expression for the maxima, for the minima, a small distance in angle is made, $\delta \theta$, which is needed to reach the next minimum,
$$Nd\sin\left(\theta+\delta\theta\right)=\left(mN+\color{red}{1}\right)\lambda$$ $$\implies Nd\left(\sin\theta\cos\delta\theta+\cos\theta\sin\delta\theta\right)=\left(mN+1\right)\lambda$$ Since $\delta\theta$ will be very small, $\cos\delta\theta=1$ and $\sin\delta\theta=\delta\theta$ then $$Nd\left(\sin\theta+\cos\theta\delta\theta\right)=\left(mN+1\right)\lambda$$ $$\implies Nd\sin\theta+Nd\cos\theta\delta\theta=mN\lambda+\lambda$$ which from $(2)$ is $$Nd\cos\theta\delta\theta=\lambda\tag{3}$$ From $(1)$, for small angles, $$\delta\theta=\frac{m\delta\lambda}{d\cos\theta}\tag{4}$$
Substituting $(4)$ into $(3)$, $$\implies Nd\cos\theta\frac{m\delta\lambda}{d\cos\theta}=\lambda$$ $$\implies \fbox{$\frac{\lambda}{\delta\lambda}=mN$}$$
That concludes the proof, I understand all of the proof except why the part marked red is $1$ instead of $1/2$. According to the proof above, I'm to understand that the next minimum is $\lambda$ away from the first maxima,
But, $\lambda$ away from the central peak is a maxima (not a minima). So it just seems nonsensical to say that the next minimum is a distance $\lambda$ away.
This is the situation I had in mind:
From the image above I note that the next minimum is $\lambda/2$ from the central maximum, and as per the Rayleigh criterion, the maximum of the right peak is directly above the next minimum of the left peak. Which is precisely the condition (I thought was) required for the Rayleigh criterion to be satisfied.
Okay, so the derivation is obviously correct and it is me that is not understanding part of it.
I have tried searching for an answer to this, the closest to an answer is this video derivation by Michel van Biezen at 7:40 he actually makes an argument about being 'half the distance' away, which is close to what I am saying here. He also derives exactly the same formula as I have (though he uses an inequality).
The images used in this post have been adapted from images on this website.
Can someone please explain to me why the next minimum is located at a distance $\lambda$ away from the first (central) maximum instead of $\lambda/2$?
UPDATE:
Thanks to all those that have responded to this post, in particular, @Philipp Oleynik, who was the person that made me realize that the derivation shown may be incorrect. Since then I have done further research into this and noticed that the same professor that wrote the derivation above has written the derivation for the Rayleigh criteria in a slightly different way in a subsequent year of lecturing. Here is a copy of the professors' derivation of the Rayleigh criterion:
Once again, I understand all the steps apart from "Its next minima has an angular separation $\delta\theta$ given by, $$Nd\sin\left(\theta+\delta\theta\right)=\left(Nm+\color{red}{1}\right)\lambda_1"$$ For the same reason as before, I think the $1$ in red should be $1/2$ which is the condition for destructive interference as required by a minima.
Last time I checked minima occur when the path difference is a half-integer multiple of the wavelength and not an integer multiple. So the update I have provided has changed nothing. The question still remains; why is it a one and not a half?