I am trying to understand an argument for why anomalies are one-loop exact, given by Bilal in Lectures on Anomalies. The relevant paragraph is reproduced here:
Let us first explain why the anomaly we have just computed corresponds to a one-loop effect. One can introduce a formal loop-counting parameter by rescaling the action as $S \rightarrow \frac{1}{\lambda}S$. Then in computing Feynman diagrams, the propagators get an extra factor $λ$ while the vertices get an extra $\frac{1}{\lambda}$. Thus every Feynman diagram comes with a factor $λ^{ I−V}$ , where $I$ is the number of internal lines and $V$ the number of vertices. By a well-known relation, one has $I − V = L − 1$ with $ L$ being the number of loops, and one sees that $\lambda$ is a loop counting parameter. Since the classical action comes with a $\frac{1}{\lambda}$ it is the tree-level contribution ($L = 0$) to the effective action, while the anomaly, like any determinant, has no factor of $\lambda$ and corresponds to a one-loop contribution ($L = 1$).
I understand everything up until the section in italics. What does it mean that any determinant has no factor of $\lambda$? Am I meant to somehow be inferring that the anomaly is invariant under such a rescaling and so it is a determinant, or is it the other way around (i.e. determinant implies invariance)?