I'm working on the Eq.(7.57) in Peskin(page 236).
So I try to verify it with LSZ formula.
According to Eq (7.42)
So $\mathcal{M}(p \rightarrow p)=-Z M^{2}\left(p^{2}\right)$
In this I have two question:
① Consider S=1+iT, why did the "1" vanish?
② Is Eq.(2)->Eq.(3) correct?
Consider Eq (7.22)in Peskin, it seems to lack a free propagator.
Eq.(2)= 1 + (1PI) + (1PI-1PI) + (1PI-1PI-1PI) + ...
Eq.(3)= (1PI) + (1PI-1PI) + (1PI-1PI-1PI) + ...