Can angular velocity and angular accelaration about any two points of a rotating body differ?

Question

For angular velocity:- Suppose we have a disc that is rolling without slipping on a rough surface and we define the angular velocity to be omega about the center of mass. Would the points of the body be also seen to rotate with the same angular velocity about a random point taken on the body? I have seen a case in the past where a particle revolving in a circle has angular velocity omega bout its center but has an angular velocity about a point on its circumference equal to half of that about the center. Shouldn't such a case follow over to a continuous mass distribution case?

For angular acceleration:-

So for a body rotating with a certain angular acceleration while rolling without slipping about its center of mass, is it necessary that from any other point on the body (say a disc) the same angular acceleration be observed? What about pseudo torques that would come into play for the other points on the disc which are accelerating with a_com (translation acceleration of COM) and their required centripetal acceleration? I am particularly interested in analyzing and proving these cases for general points on the disc

Does this answer your question? How rotating body have same angular velocity and acceleration. See also Is angular acceleration same about all points of a rotating ball? — sammy gerbil, Feb 11 '20 at 03:32
No,I am afraid not. My main query was about any other point is the angular velocity different and not about the centre of mass.It is well established that about a certain point all particles of the body have same angular velocity,all I am asking is does this fixed value chnage when measured about different points — Schwarz Kugelblitz, Feb 11 '20 at 03:41
Like in the example I had posted in the question the angular velocity of the particle revolving in a circle is half of that about the centre of mass when measured about a point on the circumference — Schwarz Kugelblitz, Feb 11 '20 at 03:42
Both questions ask the same as you. The answer is No. Take any 2 points in the body. The line between them rotates with the same angular velocity/acceleration for all pairs of points. There is nothing special about the COM. — sammy gerbil, Feb 11 '20 at 04:08
The "case in the past" was probably talking about linear velocity not angular velocity. Pseudo torques are irrelevant. — sammy gerbil, Feb 11 '20 at 04:11
The case in the past was talking about angular velocity.It follows from a simple application of inscribed angle theorem — Schwarz Kugelblitz, Feb 11 '20 at 14:10
Then the case in the past does not make sense to me. If it is an important part of your question you will need to provide a link or image to explain what you mean.. — sammy gerbil, Feb 11 '20 at 16:16
It depends on what country you're from. If you use the normal definitions in American textbooks, the answer is that angular velocity and angular acceleration are the same about any point. However, I am aware that terms like these are defined very differently in, e.g. Indian textbooks and exams. — knzhou, Feb 14 '20 at 19:33
The phrase "angular velocity" can have different definitions in different textbooks. That is true for many phrases in introductory physics. "Work" is an especially infamous example. — knzhou, Feb 14 '20 at 19:38
Ummm this just doesn't resolve anything,makes thing more messy — Schwarz Kugelblitz, Feb 14 '20 at 19:48
The question is not a duplicate...the question asked in the supposed duplicate is different whcih asks abt does the body as a whole have the same Ang velocity and my questions asks about relative angular vellocity — Schwarz Kugelblitz, Apr 27 '20 at 11:07

Can angular velocity and angular accelaration about any two points of a rotating body differ?

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