I am trying to understand angular momentum in the same visceral way that I understand linear momentum, e.g., if someone rolls a bowling ball towards me then it is “natural” to me that I must apply a force to divert its path. It’s a little more mysterious that I encounter resistance when I apply torque to the axle of a spinning bicycle wheel.
If I imagine a point mass m rotating on a mass-less rod a distance r from its axis, I understand that I am to take the cross product of r and mv to get the angular momentum vector, but in my readings, this fact always seems to be presented without further explanation.
If I think about what’s going on with this system’s linear momentum, I would predict that it would wobble around as mv changed. In this case, when I apply torque, I think that I can see that I am trying to change mv and the resistance I would encounter is explainable in sort of the same way as the bowling ball above. Am I on the right track with this example? I note that if I add a second mass π radians from the first at the same distance, the linear momentum of the system disappears, but the angular momentum doubles. Should I explain that in this case that I should ignore the total momentum and that I am applying force separately to the 2 mvs?