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When I use Spectracalc.com to calculate the peak wavelength at 500 Kelvin, I am told the peak is at 5.79551 µm. When I switch the calculation result to wavenumber the peak is said to be at 980.506 cm-1. But if I were to simply convert wavelength to wavenumber I do not get this value.

1/(5.79551E-6) = 172,547.3 m-1 = 1725.47 cm-1

What is going on here?

Edit:

Several people have answered that this has to do with the differentials not being the same size. I don't think this answers my question. I get that a wavenumber increment is not the same size as a wavelength increment. That isn't the question at all.

The question is more about the physical meaning of what is measured. Let me restate it more clearly.

Say I measure with a highly accurate physical instrument and get a value of the peak at 5.8 µm. This is a physical quantity. It is the distance between two sequential peaks of the wave of the light measured as coming from the body at the temperature of 500 K. This physical quantity, that describes a physical thing, also can be described by looking at the number of times the wave cycles in a unit distance. The wave that has a wavelength of 5.8 µm cycles 1/5.8 µm times in a unit distance, giving it a wavenumber of 1724.1 1/cm. This is also a physically meaningful way a to describe the exact same wave I measured as the peak. They are interchangeable descriptions of the same physical thing.

Now, say I had used a different instrument to measure the exact same physical body in the exact same state, an instrument that instead measured wavenumber. According to the wavenumber form of Planck's law, I should measure a wavenumber of 980.5 1/cm when earlier I had measured a wave with a wavelength of 1724.1 1/cm. This is supposed to be the exact same physical thing that was measured. Yet the exact same physical thing cannot have two different values for the same measure!

So, which is it: Is one of the forms of Planck's law wrong, or are the two measures of the same wave not in fact interchangeable, i.e., is it false that a wave with a wavelength X has a wavenumber 1/X? If the peak is a real physical phenomenon that corresponds to a real physical wavelength of X, then this physical wave MUST have a wavenumber of 1/X, unless that relation is just false. But if that relation is not false, then how on earth can we get two different values for the same physical phenomenon? The hot body knows which instrument I am using and moves the peak around accordingly? Something is not right about this.

https://www.spectralcalc.com/blackbody_calculator/blackbody.php

Karlton
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    See this, specifically that “the location of the peak of the spectral distribution for Planck's law depends on the choice of spectral variable.” $B_\lambda$ is not just $B_\nu$ with $\nu$ replaced by $c/\lambda$. – G. Smith Feb 29 '20 at 01:48
  • Wait. So how does the light know that the measurement was going to be used in Plancks law?? If the peak is at 6 micrometers, isn't that a physical value? How can the peak decide to move because it is measured in wavenumbers? That makes no sense at all. I thought a value of wavelength corresponds to a value of wavenumbers by strict definition, not depending on if the measurement happened to be of a black body emission peak! – Karlton Feb 29 '20 at 02:02
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    It isn’t just the same spectral function measured in frequency or measured in wavelength or measured in wavenumber. They are different spectral densities. They each measure the radiance per spectral unit but those spectral units are not the same “size”. A $d\nu$ is not a $d\lambda$. Look at the first equation in the section I linked to. If I may say so, you are using a software program without yet grasping the meaning of what it is displaying. Many, many people have had the same confusion over the different forms of Planck’s Law, so don’t feel bad. – G. Smith Feb 29 '20 at 02:57
  • @Karlton but you need a bandwidth over which to measure, even if it is infinitesimal, and for fixed $\Delta \nu$, $\Delta\lambda$ is different at 200 nm and 500 nm. It's basically a Jacobian factor when you change variables. – JEB Feb 29 '20 at 02:58
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  • No, that one does not answer my question either. I edited the question for clarity.

    I understand about the differentials not being the same size, but I am talking about a single wavelength and how the same physical thing can have two completely different values of the same measure.

    – Karlton Feb 29 '20 at 07:27
  • Why dz/dx should equal dz/dy? The plot is that of derivatives – Alchimista Feb 29 '20 at 10:28

1 Answers1

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Let's stick to your example of a black body with temperature $T = 500$ K.

According to Planck's law - Different forms the black-body spectrum in terms of wavelength $\lambda$ (i.e. the intensity $dI$ per wavelength range $d\lambda$) is $$ \frac{dI}{d\lambda} = B_\lambda(\lambda,T) = \frac{2hc^2}{\lambda^5} \frac{1}{e^{hc/\lambda k_B T}-1} $$ For temperature $T = 500$ K it looks like this. Note especially the peak at wavelength $5.8\ \mu$m.

spectrum per wavelength

Likewise, the spectrum in terms of wavenumber $\tilde{\nu}$ (i.e. the intensity $dI$ per wavenumber range $d\tilde{\nu}$) is $$ \frac{dI}{d\tilde{\nu}} = B_{\tilde{\nu}}(\tilde{\nu},T) = 2hc^2\tilde{\nu}^3 \frac{1}{e^{hc\tilde{\nu}/k_B T}-1} $$ For temperature $T = 500$ K it looks like this. Note especially the peak at wavenumber $980$ cm$^{-1}$.

spectrum per wavenumber

For further visualization I have highlighted some corresponding wavelength and wavenumber ranges.

  • Red: $2\ \mu\text{m} < \lambda < 5\ \mu\text{m}$ corresponding to $5000\ \text{cm}^{-1} > \tilde{\nu} > 2000\ \text{cm}^{-1}$.
  • Green: $10\ \mu\text{m} < \lambda < 25\ \mu\text{m}$ corresponding to $1000\ \text{cm}^{-1} > \tilde{\nu} > 400\ \text{cm}^{-1}$.

Note that both green areas have the same size, and both red areas have the same size. This is because it is the same spectral energy, regardless if you measure the spectrum in $\mu$m or cm$^{-1}$. But apart from that the change from wavelength to wavenumber heavily distorted the form of the spectral curve. With this distortion comes also a shift of the peak.

The important thing to understand is: In your experiment you don't measure the intensity of a single wave. You can only measure the intensity $\Delta I$ of a small wavelength range $\Delta\lambda$ or of a small wavenumber range $\Delta\tilde{\nu}$. And from that you then calculate $\frac{\Delta I}{\Delta\lambda}$, or $\frac{\Delta I}{\Delta\tilde{\nu}}$ respectively. Only this can be compared to the theoretical spectrum $\frac{dI}{d\lambda}$ shown above, or $\frac{dI}{d\tilde{\nu}}$ respectively.

  • Thank you, but this does not address my question. I am not talking about an interval or a comparison of the spread in areas. I am asking how a single physical wave can have two different values for the same measure. I edited my question for clarity. – Karlton Feb 29 '20 at 07:28
  • @Karlton I added some more (may be still insufficient) clarification. This problem is well known to be hard to explain, and hard to understand. – Thomas Fritsch Feb 29 '20 at 10:07