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I know that some string theories estimate that the mass would have to be way higher than what we can produce, about a Planck mass. But I also read that scientists have actually created a monopole magnet in a lab but it is not found in nature. How to make this consistent. What is that I'm missing? Why should the magnetic field of a spinning electron be dipole? And what exactly at the basic level is the difference between electric and magnetic fields?

Qmechanic
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    Nobody has made an actual magnetic monopole in a lab, but they have simulated a monopole, using a Bose-Einstein condensate. See https://journals.aps.org/prl/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevLett.103.030401 "The vorticity in the condensate coincides with the magnetic field of a magnetic monopole, providing an ideal analogue to the monopole studied by Dirac." – PM 2Ring Apr 10 '20 at 10:09
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    Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/261246/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/95962/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Apr 10 '20 at 10:18
  • Why don't these questions come up in the "similar questions " bar when I'm typing –  Apr 10 '20 at 10:27

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