Why is the graviton spin supposed to be 2, and how can it interact with matter?

Asked Apr 29 '20 at 23:09

Active Apr 29 '20 at 23:23

Viewed 56 times

As far as I know, gravitons are predicted to be spin-2 particles because some extrapolation from GR about non-linearity and antisymmetry. I think I want some clarification on that.

What are some proposals on the explicit form of the Lagrangian?

Also, how does it affect massive fields? Does it couple in a similar way to photons and charge?

edited Apr 29 '20 at 23:23

Qmechanic

201,751

asked Apr 29 '20 at 23:09

Ballanzor

Please take a look at this: Can I ask several related questions in a single thread? – Alfred Centauri Apr 30 '20 at 00:18
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Related and possible duplicate: How can I read off the fact that gravity is associated with spin-2 particles from the Einstein-Hilbert action? – Alfred Centauri Apr 30 '20 at 00:20
@AlfredCentauri I'm sorry I broke a rule, I can take down the extra question in the middle – Ballanzor Apr 30 '20 at 00:21
Related: Linearizing the Einstein-Hilbert action; shortcuts? – G. Smith Apr 30 '20 at 03:18

Why is the graviton spin supposed to be 2, and how can it interact with matter?

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