I am reading a paper (arXiv version) in QFT. I am stuck at this point,
$$S [\phi (x)]={1\over 2}\int\phi (x_1)D (x_1 -x_2)\phi (x_2)dx_1dx_2 $$ $$+{\lambda \over 4!}\int V (x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4) \phi(x_1)\phi (x_2)\phi (x_3) \phi (x_4) dx_1 dx_2dx_3dx_4.\tag{9}$$
Here $D (x_1-x_2)$ is an inverse propagator.
I have 3 doubts:
In LHS $\phi$ is a function of $x$ but in RHS there is no $x$. Why?
How the inverse propagator comes?
Here we are studying $\phi^4$ theory so, how $V (x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4)$ comes in second term of RHS?