1

Consider a free particle in a rotating reference frame. Let us say the coordinates of the particle are given by $(x',y')$ in this frame. For an observer on this frame, (I suspect) the Lagrangian is just

$$ L' = \frac 1 2 m\left[(\dot x')^2 + (\dot y')^2\right] \tag{1}$$

However, for an observer on an inertial frame with respect to this rotating frame the Lagrangian would be

$$ L = \frac{1}{2}m\left[(\dot x)^2 + (\dot y)^2\right] $$ where the transformation between $(x,y)$ and $(x',y')$ are given by

$$\begin{align} x' &= x\cos(\theta) + y\sin(\theta) \\ y' &= -x\sin(\theta) + y\cos(\theta) \\ \text{and}\quad \theta &= \theta(t). \end{align}$$

Using these transformations I get

$$L = \frac 1 2 m\left[(\dot x')^2 + (\dot y')^2\right] + 2\omega(t)(x'\dot y' - y'\dot x') + \omega(t)^2(x'^2 + y'^2) \tag{2}$$

Thus, it seems to me that if I use the EL equations for the Lagrangian in (2) I would get the contributions from pseudo forces such as the Coriolis and the Euler forces. However, for the observer on the rotating frame with the Lagrangian given by (1), on using the EL equations for that Lagrangian, I don't understand how I would be able to describe the pseudo forces.

Would I then have a non-zero 'generalized force' term in the EL equation?

newtothis
  • 653

1 Answers1

0

The kinetic energy is:

$$T=\frac{1}{2}\,m{{ \dot{x}}}^{2}-m{ \dot{x}}\,\omega \left( t \right) y+\frac{1}{2}\,m{{ \dot{y}}}^{2}+m{ \dot{y}}\,\omega \left( t \right) x+\frac{1}{2}\,m \left( \left( \omega \left( t \right) \right) ^{2}{x}^{2}+ \left( \omega \left( t \right) \right) ^{2}{y}^{2} \right) $$

notice that the generalized coordinates are $x\,,y$ not $x'\,,y'$

Euler Lagrange $$\frac{\partial T}{\partial \dot{x}}-\frac{\partial T}{\partial x}=0$$

$$\frac{\partial T}{\partial \dot{x}}=m\,\left(\dot{x}-\omega(t)\,y\right)$$

and

$$m\frac{d}{dt}\,\left(\dot{x}-\omega(t)\,y\right)= m\left(\ddot{x}-\omega\,\dot{y}-\dot{\omega}\,y\right)$$

$$\frac{\partial T}{\partial x}=m\left(\dot{y}\,\omega+\omega^2\,x\right)$$

thus the equation of motion for $x$

$$\ddot{x}-2\,\omega\,\dot{y}-\omega^2\,x-\dot{\omega}\,y=0$$

edit

enter image description here

the components of the position vector in the rotate frame are:

$$\vec{R}=\begin{bmatrix} x' \\ y' \\ z' \\ \end{bmatrix}=\left[ \begin {array}{ccc} \cos \left( \pm\varphi \left( \tau \right) \right) &-\sin \left( \pm\varphi \left( \tau \right) \right) &0 \\ \sin \left( \pm\varphi \left( \tau \right) \right) &\cos \left( \pm\varphi \left( \tau \right) \right) &0 \\ 0&0&1\end {array} \right]\,\begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \\ z \\ \end{bmatrix} $$

so the kinetic energy is:

$$T=\frac{m}{2}\,\vec{\dot{R}}\cdot \vec{\dot{R}}$$

where $\vec{\dot{R}}=\frac{d}{d\tau}\vec{R}$

in my kinetic equation , I took the minus sign of $\varphi(\tau)\quad,\dot{\varphi}=\omega(\tau)$ , z components equal zero , with $\tau= t$

Eli
  • 11,878
  • The kinetic energy you mention, is from which frame? Is it the kinetic energy in the primed coordinates (rotating frame)? – newtothis Jul 11 '20 at 03:43
  • @newtothis I add more information for you – Eli Jul 11 '20 at 07:03
  • Sorry I'm still not sure how you get the expression for kinetic energy. My question is, in the rotating frame, how would I write my Lagrangian and how would my equations of motions contain the fictitious forces? If I want to solve the problem from the rotating frame why can't I take $ (x',y') $ as my generalized coordinates? – newtothis Jul 11 '20 at 13:19
  • Your equations are $x‘=...$ and $y‘=...$ so you transfer the x,y components to components in rotate system, right?, thus the generalized coordinates are x and y. From here you obtain the kinetic energy according to my equation – Eli Jul 11 '20 at 16:07