Given the standard geodesic equation: $$\frac{d^2 x^\mu}{d\lambda^2}+\Gamma ^\mu _{\sigma \rho}\frac{d x^\sigma}{d \lambda}\frac{d x^\rho}{d \lambda}=0$$ we want to apply it to the Schwarzschild metric; conceptually this simply means using the proper $\Gamma$ coefficients, but in practice this leads to a gargantuan calculation. But fortunately we can apply some simplification to get the following equation: $$\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{dr}{d\lambda}\right)^2+V(r)=\mathcal{E} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ (1)$$ where: $$V(r)=\frac{1}{2}\epsilon-\epsilon\frac{GM}{r}+\frac{L^2}{2r^2}-\frac{GML^2}{r^3}$$ $$\mathcal{E}=\frac{1}{2}E^2$$ we should also specify that:
- This equations should hold for massive and massless particles alike, so $\lambda$ is in one case the proper time and in the other an affine parameter of the proper time.
- $r \equiv r(\lambda)$ which is the radius of the orbit
- $\epsilon := -g_{\mu\nu}\frac{d x^\mu}{d\lambda}\frac{d x^\nu}{d\lambda}$
- $E=\left(1-\frac{2GM}{r}\right)\frac{dt}{d\lambda}$
- $L=r^2\frac{d \phi}{d\lambda}$ (where $\phi$ is the fourth coordinate in our Schwarzschild's spherical coordinates)
End of the setup; my question is: I followed the proof of this statement, involving killing vectors ecc., and I get the mathematical gist of it, but I have problems interpreting the result. Is there an intuitive way to read statement (1)?
(For example: One problem is that it is said that $V(\lambda)$ should represent the potential and $\mathcal{E}$ should represent the energy, but I don't see how.)