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Even though the magnetic field is a non conservative field, the potential energy of a magnetic dipole (current-carrying log or bar magnet) is defined in a magnetic field. How can this be possible? Please explain.

From what I have learned from reading other answers, the magnetic field, in some cases, behaves like a conservative force field. It’s called non conservative due to its field lines forming closed loops. Its nature is not exactly defined due to it acting at right angles to the velocity of charge particle, which is different than other generally known forces, and due to the non existence of magnetic monopoles. But this didn’t exactly answer my question.

SuperCiocia
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Ashu tosh
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  • Yes ,the question you listed answers my question ,Thank You! – Ashu tosh Jul 23 '20 at 06:42
  • @Ashutosh: If that is the case, you should be able to accept it as a dublicate to close this question. – Wrzlprmft Jul 23 '20 at 06:51
  • Do you mean I should click on "delete" option and delete this ques?? (I am new on this website) – Ashu tosh Jul 23 '20 at 08:33
  • @Ashutosh: No. There should be a dialogue like this. Saying that solved my problem should close your question. If not, flag→duplicate →choose duplicate might bring it up. If that still does not work, do not worry. Please do not delete your question as it may serve as a sign post directing others having a similar problem like you. – Wrzlprmft Jul 23 '20 at 08:40
  • I submitted flag,Thank You! – Ashu tosh Jul 23 '20 at 08:43

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