At some point we are looking for the solution of the Einstein field equation for the Schwarzschild gravitation from
$$ds^2 = A(r)dt^2 +B(r)dr^2+r^2d\theta+r^2\sin^2(\theta)d\phi^2\tag{1}$$
I am reading Wikipedia and the obtained solution is
$$A(r)B(r)=K \quad \mathrm{with} \quad A(r)=(1-\frac{1}{Sr})\tag{2}$$
Then requiring $r \to \infty$ to approach Minkowski one gets $K=-1$. Therefore, as $A(r)B(r)=-1$ then the determinant of the Schwarzschild metric is the same as the determinant of the Minkovski metric
$$det(g)=det(\eta)=-1 \tag{3}$$
My question is: why we can't look for the solution from this $$ds^2 = A(r)dt^2 +A^{-1}(r)dr^2+r^2d\theta+r^2\sin^2(\theta)d\phi^2\tag{4}$$
instead of (1)? I guess the answer is: because we do not know "a-priory" that $det(g)=-1$.
Is so, then could we theoretically get $det(g)=-4$?
Or re-phrasing: do we know a-priori that $det(g)=-1$ ? If so then why we can't start looking for the solution in the form of (4)?