In quantum mechanics, if we have an operator $\Omega$, then under the transformation $T$, with infinitesimal generator $G$ (i.e. $T(\epsilon)=1-i\epsilon G + \ldots$), then operator transforms as $$\Omega\rightarrow T^\dagger\Omega T,$$ so, infinitesimally, $$\delta\Omega = T^\dagger\Omega T-\Omega$$ $$=(1+i\epsilon G)\Omega(1-i\epsilon G)-\Omega$$ $$=i\epsilon[G,\Omega],$$ to first order.
Now what happens if, in QFT language, $\Omega$ is a fermionic operator? I am looking at BRST symmetry, in particular, on page 19 here [1], it reads
for a general field dependent function $\Phi$, $$\delta_B\Phi=i\theta[Q_B, \Phi]_\pm,$$ where $Q_B$ is the conserved Noether charge associated with the BRST symmetry, $[ , ]_− = [ , ]$ and $[ , ]_+ = \{ , \}$, and the sign being minus/plus according as Φ is bosonic/fermionic.
Since $\Phi$ is fermionic, the anticommutator is chosen. The anticommutator is used everywhere else I look, e.g. page 74 here [2].
However, I do not understand how the standard quantum mechanical argument above breaks down if $\Omega$ is a fermionic operator. Why should $\delta \Omega$ be different depending on the bosonic/fermionic nature of $\Omega$?
[1] BRST quantization and string theory spectra - Bram M. Wouters
[2] String Theory - R. A. Reid-Edwards