Angular momentum of an electron

Question

I was reading a little about atomic structure and i came across the formula:

angular momentum of an electron=$\sqrt{(l)(l+1)}\frac{h}{2\pi}.....(1)$

also i know the bohr quantisation rule i.e

$$mvr=\frac{nh}{2\pi}.....(2)$$

Somehow $(1),(2)$ don't correlate.Where am i making a mistake?.

Thanks in advance

They agree in the limit that the quantum number goes to infinity. But basically Bohr was just wrong. — G. Smith, Sep 14 '20 at 15:27
Does this answer your question? What is the difference between angular momentum of electron by Bohr and orbital angular momentum? — , Sep 12 '21 at 19:53

score 0 · Answer 1 · answered Sep 14 '20 at 11:47

Eqn (2) comes from semi classical-quantum model proposed by Bohr and eqn(1) comes from quantum mechanical model by using Schrodinger's equation. These two are completely different concept so if you can't get any correlation then that's good cause you're not supposed to get one. For more details I'll ask you to study about angular momentum in quantum mechanics and then it'll be more clearly understandable for you.

Angular momentum of an electron

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