I'm doing something very wrong or It seems to me that I can't generate a finite Lorentz transformation using the exponential of the infinitesimal Lorentz boosts.
Let me define $L_{x;v}$ as the operator that produce a Lorentz boost in the $x$-direction with a speed of $v$. This operator acts on the components of the 4-position as follows
$$L_{x;v}(x) =\gamma_{v}(x-vt),$$
$$L_{x;v}(y) =y,$$
$$L_{x;v}(z) =z,$$
$$L_{x;v}(t) =\gamma_{v}(t-vx),$$
where $\gamma_{v}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-v^{2}}}$. Now, the infinitesimal generator of a Lorentz boost in the $x$-direction (in the Hamiltonian sense) is $K_{x}=Hx-tp_{x}$, where $H=\sqrt{p^{2}+m^{2}}$. A finite Lorentz transformation should be given via the exponential operator
$$L_{x;v}=\exp\left[\left\{ \circ,K_{x}\right\} \right]=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n!}\left\{ \circ,K_{x}\right\} ^{n}.$$
But I can't see how this operator gives the correct Lorentz transformations.
For the $x$ coordinate we have that $\left\{ x,K_{x}\right\} =x\frac{p_{x}}{H}-t$, hence, the term $\left\{ \left\{ x,K_{x}\right\} ,K_{x}\right\}$ will be independent of time. So the term $\gamma_{v}vt$ will not appear.
Worse yet, $K_{x}$ generates a change in the $y$ coordinate $\left\{ y,K_{x}\right\} =x\frac{p_{y}}{H}\neq0$, in contradiction of what a Lorentz transformation should do.
My take is that the usual tools of Hamiltonian mechanics are unable to give the right answer because in this case we have a transformation that also change the time.