By Amonton's laws, we say that the force of kinetic friction takes the following form:
$$ F= \mu W$$
Where $ \mu$ is some constant and $ W$ is the amount of weight the body applies perpendicular to the surface which it moves on.
Now, many resources including Feynman's lectures say the mechanism of friction is related to the molecular vibrations which occur at the surfaces in contact between an object and the surface which it moves on(*). However, I think that this molecular depiction is completely unrelated to the actual physical interpretation of the equation!
For example, consider two blocks: Block-A and Block-B, and both blocks have rough surfaces and Block-B is much larger in dimensions than block-A. If block-A is given some velocity and moves on top of Block-B, then block-A moves on top of Block-B and this causes a friction action-reaction pair to trigger. Block-B moves on a 'smooth surface'.
Now, the friction retards block-A and accelerates block-B. Sometime after, when block-A has turned to rest relative to Block-B, then Block-B has gained some kinetic energy from block-A and is moving with velocity. However, notice that no energy was lost out of the system/ due to molecular interactions or sound!
So, does this suggest that the popular explanations are given for friction actually have no direct relation with the actual mathematical model we use for friction?
My argument that the model doesn't account for heating:
It is known that internal forces do no work. In this case, the frictional force does no work because it is internal. Hence, the kinetic energy of the block, in the beginning, must be equal to the final kinetic energy of the combined system, or in other words, no energy lost!
My question is different from this one because here my question is about understanding a certain nuance of the model used to explain friction rather than what the model is in itself.
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