Imagine a fundamental particle at rest with respect to ground frame and has temperature $x$ degrees celsius and imagine a 'similar' particle moving at a very high speed (take any value which would affect temperature significantly). So the particle moving has temperature greater than $x$ degrees celsius or exactly equal to $x$ degrees celsius?
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2Does this answer your question? Why isn't temperature frame dependent? or this https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/587562/doesnt-this-experiment-signify-that-inertial-frames-are-not-equivalent.. – Ankit Jan 25 '21 at 14:37
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1Didn't got the answer. But your question is indeed co-related with me. – Swayam Jha Jan 25 '21 at 15:25
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Temperature is a measure of internal energy.
So if in any process the internal energy changes then the temperature will change.
For ideal gases $ΔT=ΔU/nCv.$
Now Internal Energy is the sum of all possible intrinsic energies in a system, which includes microscopic Kinetic Energy (not macroscopic), so if the net sum of these energies changes only then will the temperature change.
Since in this case only the macroscopic Kinetic Energy changes ( assuming all other microscopic energies are constant).
Temperature will remain constant.
Aditya Sharma
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For non ideal gases, but simpler object's what will be the formula for temperature? – Swayam Jha Jan 25 '21 at 15:17
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And one more crucial pointm Though temp. Is total avg. Internal energy if we disturb the system externally i.e. work done etc will result into increase of total avg. Energy per molecule which eventually will result into increase in temperatures – Swayam Jha Jan 25 '21 at 16:44
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1If it affects the system on molecular level then there is no point in calling it external work... – Aditya Sharma Feb 17 '21 at 04:25