In classical mechanics non-relativistic Lagrangians rely only on the coordinates and their first derivatives to describe a physical system.
Is there a deep reason why particle acceleration etc does not make an appearance as a Lagrangian argument?
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1Great question! Does this post answer it?: Why are there only derivatives to the first order in the Lagrangian? – AccidentalFourierTransform Feb 05 '21 at 20:50
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yes, thank you! – monday Feb 05 '21 at 20:50