I want to prove the following:
Show that for any one dimensional, time independent potential $U(x)$, where $\lim\limits_{x \rightarrow \infty}{U(x)} = 0$ and $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}U(x) < 0$ there always exists at least one bound state with energy $E < 0$.
Hint: Approximate the expectation value of the energy $E(\alpha)$ in the state $\psi(x, \alpha) = \sqrt{\alpha} \exp(-\alpha|x|)$ for small $\alpha > 0$ and $\alpha \in \mathbb{R}$.
My question is if my proof below is correct and sound; I tried to also derive the approach given in the hint:
I argue that if $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}U(x) < 0$ then there must exist an interval $[x_1, x_2]$ where $U(x \in [x_1, x_2]) < 0$. If I can now show that a bound state with negative energy exists even if this interval goes to zero, then we can deduct that such a state will always exist.
We reduce the interval $[x_1, x_2]$ to a point $x^{'}$; the potential at that point is then reduced to a delta distribution $U(x^{'}) = -C \delta(x - x^{'})$.
This leads to the following stationary Schrödinger Equation:
$$\frac {\partial^2} {\partial x^2} \psi(x) + \frac {2m} {\hbar^2} (C\delta(x - x^{'}) + E) \psi(x) = 0 $$
We know from a previous assignment that the normalized solution for the bound case is
$$\psi(x) = \sqrt{\alpha} \exp{(-\alpha |x|)}$$
where $\alpha = \sqrt{2mE} / \hbar$ and $\alpha \in \mathbb{C}$.
Let $\alpha = i \sqrt{2m|E|} = i \kappa$. Then the expectation value $\langle E \rangle = \langle \psi(x)| \hat{H} | \psi(x) \rangle$ with $\hat{H} = \frac{\hat{p}}{2m} + U(x)$ can be calculated as:
\begin{equation} \begin{split} \langle E \rangle & = \kappa^2 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{dx} \exp{(i \kappa |x|)} \left ( \frac{-\hbar^2}{2m} \frac {\partial^2} {\partial x^2} + U(x) \right) \exp{(- i \kappa |x|)} \\ & = \frac{\hbar^2 \kappa^4}{2m} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{dx} \exp{( i \kappa |x|)} \exp{(- i \kappa |x|)} + \kappa^2 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{dx} \exp{( i \kappa |x|)} \, U(x) \, \exp{(- i \kappa|x|)}. \\ \end{split} \end{equation}
The first integral must equal $1$ because bound states are normalizable. Since we're looking for bound states it's sufficient to consider small energies and thus $\alpha \approx 0$. Therefore, the first term vanishes. For the second integral we notice that the exponentials can now be approximated as $\exp(\pm i \kappa |x|) \approx \pm i \kappa |x|$ to first order. We retrieve:
\begin{equation} \begin{split} \langle E \rangle & = \kappa^2 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{dx} \exp{( i \kappa |x|)} \, U(x) \, \exp{(- i \kappa|x|)} \\ & \approx \kappa^4 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{dx} (i |x|) \, U(x) \, (- i |x|) \\ & = \kappa^4 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{dx} |x|^2 \, U(x). \end{split} \end{equation}
Now we remember that $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}U(x) < 0$. Since $\alpha$ and $|x|^2$ are always positive and thus don't change the sign of the integral it follows that
$$\langle E \rangle < 0.$$
Finally, because every state $\psi(x)$ can be decomposed into eigenstates of the Hamiltonian as $\psi(x) = \sum_n c_n \psi_n(x)$ there must exist at least one bound energy eigenstate with eigenvalue $E < 0$.
If yes, why is it not rather suggested to evaluate $d/d\alpha \bar{E}(\alpha) = 0$ but rather to approximate $\alpha \approx 0$?
My suggestion is that $\alpha \approx 0$ is already enough to show that negative eigenvalues exist and the task is not to find its exact value. But maybe you can try to explain this in your own words? Thanks!
– FunkyPeanut Feb 07 '21 at 12:33