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Suppose we have two particles with spin $1/2$. They have $S^{tot}=1$ and $S^{tot}_y=0$.
How can we write the state of the system in terms of the eigenstates of $S_{1z},S_{2z}$?

My attempt:
I would like to divide the problem in two: firstly we write the state of the system in terms of the states of $S_{1y},S_{2y}$ and then we re-write the state in terms of $S_{1z},S_{2z}$:
We know that it's always true that: $$S^{tot}_y=S_{1y}+S_{2y}$$ this is a fundamental rule of the spin's algebra, right? So: $$0=S_{1y}+S_{2y}$$ but of course this last two can only be $+1/2$ or $-1/2$, so the possible states are: $$|+1/2,-1/2\rangle \ \ \ or \ \ \ |-1/2,+1/2\rangle$$ I then state that the more general solution is the linear combination of this two possibilities, and so (let me call $+1/2$ simply $+$ and $-1/2$ simply $-$): $$|S^{tot}=1,S^{tot}_y=0\rangle =a|+,-\rangle+b|-,+\rangle$$ For me this should be the solution. But: in my lecture notes it's stated that the true solution is: $$|S^{tot}=1,S^{tot}_y=0\rangle =\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left[|+,-\rangle+|-,+\rangle\right] \tag{1}$$ I don't get why this must be true, remember that the particles are not identical. This is my first problem.

But suppose that we do not have this problem, let's assume (1) to be correct. Then how can I translate (1) from $y$ to $z$? What is the link? How does the link work? This is my second problem.

I would like to understand what I am getting right and what I am getting wrong.

Noumeno
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  • When you say $S_y^{tot}=S_{1y}+S_{2y}$ and $0=S_{1y}+S_{2y}$, do the $S$s refer to operators or eigenvalues? – Sandejo Feb 10 '21 at 17:47
  • Have you evaluated $S^\text{tot}$ on your "general solution"? Your reasoning to arrive at it used only $S^\text{tot}_y = 0$, but you have an additional datum of $S^\text{tot} = 1$ that you haven't used. 2. I do not understand what "translation from $y$ to $z$" is supposed to mean or what "link" you mean in that part of your question. Could you be more explicit about what you want to do here?
  • – ACuriousMind Feb 10 '21 at 17:49
  • @ACuriousMind 1. You are right, but how can I use the datum of $s^{tot}=1$ in this situation? 2.Look at the problem at the start of my answer: we need to express the state that is now in the base of the total angular momentum in $y$ in the base of the angular momentum of the two particles along $z$. Once we get equation (1) how can we move forward to answer the question in the problem? I would really appreciate an answer instead of a comment, I think my inability of solving this problem reflects something I do not understand, and so a complete answer from you would be great! – Noumeno Feb 10 '21 at 20:00