I usually post question in bulleted form for convenience that does not mean I am asking more than one question.
Although Fermi energy and fermi Level is discussed many times on this website. Still, I have some doubt. What I Understand is
Fermi Energy is the difference highest occupied state and lowest occupied state at 0k.
Fermi Level is the state for which there is a 50% probability of occupation.
- This definition of Fermi energy is valid only for the system in which electrons are free (metals or superconductor), or any system.
For the intrinsic semiconductor at 0k,
Is fermi energy and Fermi level both are equal? (I don't know)
If Yes, then the value of this fermi energy is the same as derived for free electrons system (metal) as $\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(\frac{3\pi^2N}{V})^{2/3}$ and
In one of the answers (here) it is written that the Fermi energy falls in the band gap If it is a highest occupied state, then how it can fall on bandgap. The energy states in the bandgap are not permissible.
If No, then what is the significance of Fermi energy for semiconductors? I think it should lie in the valence band?
Some formula we use in solid state semiconductors like $$E_{\mathrm{F}} == \frac{E_{\mathrm{CB}} - E_{\mathrm{VB}}}{2} + \frac{3}{4} k_\mathrm{B} T \ln(\frac{m_{\mathrm{CB}}^*}{m_{\mathrm{VB}}^*}) $$
Here the$E_f$ is fermi energy or fermi level?
- In kittel's, book It is has been mentioned that at 0 k the chemical potential equals fermi energy, here, is this fermi energy equals one that derived for metals. Also, I did not understand the significance of this line.
I am seriously confused. I will edit my question later after getting answer, I will make it more precise for future help.
Edit: This question discusses fermi level, And In my question, doubt is solely related to fermi energy.