By definition if $L$ is an element of the Lorentz group we have $(x,y)=(Lx,Ly)$. Now $S$ be an element of $\mathrm{SL}(2, \mathbb{C})$. Usually people defines the homomorphism $\lambda:\mathrm{SL}(2, \mathbb{C}) \longrightarrow \mathrm{O}(1, 3)$ by $$\lambda(S)x=SA_xS^\dagger$$
Where $$ A_x:=\left(\begin{array}{ll} x_0+x_3 & x_1-ix_2 \\ x_1+ix_2 & x_0-x_3 \end{array}\right). $$ The proof that $\lambda(S)x \in \mathrm{O}(3, 1)$ is by defining the inner product by $$(\lambda(S)x,\lambda(S)x)=\det[\lambda(S)x] \tag 1$$ We can show that $\det[\lambda(S)x]=(x,x)$.
I am not understanding why $\lambda(S)$ is an element of the Lorentz group. Shouldn't we prove that $$(\lambda(S)x,\lambda(S)y)=(x,y)~?$$ How to define $(\lambda(S)x,\lambda(S)y)$?