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When we go from the field variables $({\vec E},\vec{B})$ to the potentials $(\phi,{\vec A})$, the number of degrees of freedom describing any electromagnetic field is reduced from $6$ ($3$ components of ${\vec E}$+$3$ components of ${\vec B}$) to $4$ ($\phi$ is a scalar+ $3$ components of ${\vec A}$. A Coulomb gauge condition $\nabla\cdot{\vec A}=0$ can further reduce the number of degrees of freedom by at most one because it amounts to the freedom of choosing only one scalar function. This leaves us with 3 degrees of freedom for a general electromagnetic field. In my way of counting, I end up with $3$ degrees of freedom for a general electromagnetic field. What's wrong with this counting of DOFs?

I asked a related question here. Here I am asking what is wrong with my logic?

  • How is this really different from your other question? Compared to Jan's answer there, you here simply left out the part where you have to use the equations of motion to figure out whether the three remaining d.o.f. are independent. – ACuriousMind Apr 03 '21 at 17:01
  • https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/185092/counting-degrees-of-freedom-in-field-theories/369173#369173 – DanielC Apr 03 '21 at 17:01
  • The concept of degree of freedom is properly defined in Lagrangian and Hamiltonian mechanics and the proper counting of #DoF is done only in the Hamiltonian. – DanielC Apr 03 '21 at 17:06
  • @ACuriousMind Can you confirm whether all EM fields (not only source-free fields) have two degrees of freedom? – Solidification Apr 03 '21 at 17:29
  • @DanielC I want to know what is wrong with my reasoning – Solidification Apr 03 '21 at 17:31

1 Answers1

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You are missing one gauge condition on the 4-potential.

The Dirac-Bergmann analysis of the Hamiltonian formulation of the EM Field (metric mostly minus, in vacuum or in matter) shows that for the initial 8 Hamiltonian variables $A_{\mu}, \pi_{\mu}$ one has two 1st class constraints:

$$\pi_0 \approx 0 \quad \tag{1}$$ $$-\partial^i \pi_i \approx 0 \quad \tag{2}$$

which can be fixed by imposing two gauge conditions: $$ A_0 \approx 0 \quad \tag{3}$$ $$-\partial^i \pi_i \approx 0 \quad \tag{4}$$

Now we can count the DoF: $(8-4):2 = 2$ (of course, at each space-time point). If you are not familiar with constrained systems (this is usually not a standard material in US university education), then read the accepted answer here Counting Degrees of Freedom in Field Theories? which uses standard textbook material.

DanielC
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  • Is the number of independent DOF also equal to two even when the sources are nonzero? The accepted answer in the linked post uses zero-source equations. – Solidification Apr 03 '21 at 17:54
  • Yes, the # of DoF is embedded in the geometry and is connected with the a) masslessness and b) lack of magnetic monopoles. – DanielC Apr 03 '21 at 19:03