In the book of Intro. Statistical Mechanics by Huang, at page 156, while explaining macro canonical ensemble, the author states that
We are interested in the probability of occurrence of the microstate $\left\{p_{1}, q_{1}\right\}$ of subsystem 1 , regardless of the state of system 2 :
Probability that 1 is in $\mathrm{d} p_{1} \mathrm{~d} q_{1} \propto \mathrm{d} p_{1} \mathrm{~d} q_{1} \Gamma_{2}\left(E-E_{1}\right)$
where system 1 and 2 are the closed system and the heat reservoir, respectively. And $\Gamma_2 (E-E_1)=\Gamma_2(E_2)$ is the phase space volume of the reservoir having total internal energy $E_2$.
However, the above statement contains an implicity assumption that the probability of system one having a state of energy $E_1$ is proportional to phase space volume over the states with that energy. Meaning that the probability of a microstate being occupied by the system is proportional to macrostate of that microstate. Hence, the occurence of microstates aren't equal overall, but rather microstates have the same probability of occurence only within the set of microstates having the same macrostates. This is different than ergodic hypothesis, which assumes all microstates have the same probaility of occurence regarless of their macrostates.
Where does this assumption come from? Is there an explanation for why this must be the case?