Given two density matrices $\rho_1,\rho_2$ (let them be finite dimensional). I try to show that $\mathrm{Tr}((\rho_1-\rho_2)^2) = 0 \implies \rho_1 = \rho_2$. What I tried is the following.
I realised that $(\rho_1 - \rho_2)^2$ is semi positive-definite since $\rho_1,\rho_2$ are Hermitian and semi positive-definite. Therefore the eigenvalues are real and non-negative. Since the sum of these eigenvalues is zero all the eigenvalues of $(\rho_1 - \rho_2)^2$ must be zero. However I don't see how to connect this to the conclusion that $\rho_1 = \rho_2$?
It is true that we have $(\rho_1 - \rho_2)^2 v = 0$ for all $v \in \mathbb{C}^n$ (since you can express $v$ in terms of complete eigenbasis of $(\rho_1 - \rho_2)^2$) and hence $(\rho_1 - \rho_2)^2 = 0$. But this does not imply $\rho_1 = \rho_2$ right?