Consider a frame $S$ which is at rest. The frams $S'$ at $t=0$ coincides with $S$ and then start moving with velocity $v$ in the $+x$ direction.
In Galilean transformation we can easily see that $y'=y$
But while deriving the transformation formulas for Lorentz transformation, we take $y'=y$
If we consider $y'=y'(x,y,z,t)$ then definitely it is linear with respect to all its arguments so that Newton's law holds.
So, we can write $y'=a_1x+a_2y+a_3z+a_4t\tag{1}$
I am trying to prove $y'=y$ from $y'=y(x,y,z,t)$
If the particle is on $x-axis$ in $S$ then it remains on $x-axis$ on $S'$
So, $y'=y=0$ and $z'=z=0$
From (1),
$0=a_1x+a_4t$
As $x$ and $t$ are independent of each other.
We can conclude that $a_1=a_4=0$
Thus (1) becomes $y'=a_2y+a_3z \tag{2}$
If the particle is in $x-z$ plane in $S$ at $y=0$ the particle remains in $x-z$ plane at $y'=0$ otherwise we get a contradiction that $S'$ moves in $y$ direction also.
So, (2) becomes, $0=a_3z,\;\;\forall z$
$\implies a_3=0$
Thus (2) becomes, $y'=a_2y\tag{3}$
But I have trouble in proving $a_2=1$.
Some authors use the concept of symmetry, but I am not able to understand their argument completely.
Please help in understanding how $a_2=1$?
I am very confused.
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